Logistics Basic Officer Leader Course (LOG BOLC) Exam 7 Practice

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• Coordinating involves interfacing with organizations that participate directly or indirectly with the movement of personnel, supplies, and forces supporting deployment, redeployment, and distribution operations.
• What does LAD stand for in deployment planning?
• The mobility force liaison is normally which center?
• What is required regarding securing materials during rail movement?
• Which of the following is an allowed practice when naming MSRs?
• A geographic boundary is a typical location for a checkpoint?
• Which step focuses on BBPCT requirements?
• Which statement best defines the Available-to-load date (ALD)?
• BBPCT stands for which?
• What is the Distribution Network design plan?
• There are how many steps to making a movement plan and deployment checklist?
• DD 1750 is a packing list.
• When deployed, which duties may the MCT perform?
• In RSOI, what does the Port of Debarkation (POD) refer to?
• What should be done to vehicle configuration based on movement order?
• What is ATP 3-35?
• The CDDP is a tool for what purpose?
• Who is responsible for preparing its vehicles and equipment for rail movement?
• Where is the ARTRANS Operations Center located?
• POE stands for which term?
• Which of the following is an example of Other Convoy Commander-instituted measures?
• Who conducts the inspection in the Call Forward Area?
• What is the primary purpose of the marshalling area in the APOE?
• The Mobilization Movement Plan is used to move which type of units?
• Which of the following is listed as a critical point example?
• To achieve integration in RSOI planning, what must be true?
• Ten MCTs per 1000 miles of each Main Supply Route (MSR) in DIV/Corps, Theater & Port is:
• Which planning tool is used to visually represent the MSR network?
• The Deployment Movement Plan moves AC and RC from Mobilization site or Installation to POE.
• How much documentation is required for civilian operations?
• The A/DACG provides liaison to which mobility force component, normally?
• Gondola cars sides are designed to do what?
• Who is responsible for area control at the BDE rear area?
• UDL data is used to produce which item?
• What does CRE stand for?
• In rail operations, what does AAR stand for?
• How much documentation is required for military operations?
• Which option is NOT one of the four APOE areas?
• In Movement Request Process, which step comes immediately before Origin MCT Closes TMR?
• There are how many steps to making a movement plan and deployment checklist?
• What is Phase I of deployment?
• Which term describes moving units from ports to theater staging bases or forward to the TAAs?
• The CDDP is a tool used primarily for what purpose?
• Which step ensures the Movement Plan remains current?
• ATP 3-35 is the Army publication covering which topic?
• Final inspection compliance is referenced to which standard in rail operations?
• What movement control asset closes out the shipment (TMR)?
• A checkpoint would typically be established at which location?
• What does the Unit Deployment List represent?
• Which principle ensures that units maintain their organization and capabilities during the RSOI flow?
• ADACG stands for Arrival/Departure Airfield Control Group Operations.
• Which is an example of a critical point?
• Which statement best reflects unity of command in RSOI planning?
• What are the three primary factors affecting onward movement in RSOI planning?
• Route synchronization is the responsibility of which individuals at each echelon with area jurisdiction?
• APOD stands for?
• One MCT per Large Seaport is best described as:
• Why do we not tell them where sensitive items are?
• What does EAD stand for in deployment planning?
• What are the two types of convoy control?
• Which facility type would be most likely to have insufficient water depth or pier length?
• MCTs are normally OPCON to which level?
• What is Step 5 of the movement plan?
• What is route synchronization?
• Which statement accurately describes an APOD?
• What does the A/DACG do when no mobility force is available?
• Which unit provides dispatch to support unit preparation for movement?
• Which APOE area is designated for marshaling operations?
• ALD stands for?
• Which statement correctly contrasts planned and immediate movements?
• What must the commander provide at the rail site?
• What is Step 4 of the movement plan?
• Boxcars are ideal for commodities requiring weather protection or pilferage. Which of the following lists a correct example?
• What is Step 6 of the movement plan?
• Which plan moves AC and RC from Mobilization Site or Installation to POE?
• What are the four routing principles?
• What does AMC stand for?
• What organization is the first point of contact for other DoD organizations needing Army common user transportation?
• Which statement defines the Unit Deployment List?
• A reserved route is described as:
• What two distinct tables are produced in Step 9?
• Which description matches NTAT?
• In the acronym RSOI, which term represents the initial phase?
• What are infiltration rules?
• Which statement best describes the MCT's authority over Air Force assets, host-nation rail, and Army watercraft?
• How many Defense Freight Rail Interchange Fleet flatcars are there?
• In a combination yard layout, which statement best describes the process?
• Which unit type originates movement planning from the Mobilization Station?
• Boxcars capacity description: which statement is accurate?
• Which term is associated with bare beach facilities in the discussed categories?
• Which option lists the four functional areas of APOE?
• What is Step 3 of the movement plan?
• The DD 7598 is which of the following?
• ADACG stands for?
• Which of the following is NOT a function of the A/DACG?
• What does CRE stand for in this context?
• What is the difference between a planned move and an immediate move?
• Who ensures vehicles and equipment operators follow the instructions of the load team chief or loadmaster?
• Which is a duty of the Chalk commander?
• Which entities are included when coordinating movements?
• The A/DACG coordinates with which parties?
• Which step of the movement plan involves translating what needs to be moved into transportation terms?
• What is the primary mission of the A/DACG?
• Movement Control Teams (MCTs) are assigned to which battalion?
• Passengers are grouped by categories in Step 2. Which grouping is specified?
• A prohibited route is:
• Which route is specifically identified for exclusive use and may be used for large maneuver unit movements?
• Which statement correctly describes the responsibilities of the deploying unit and installation regarding major rail activities?
• What is Step 2 of the movement plan?
• What is the correct order of deployment phases from first to last?
• At the point where the alert holding area transfers load control, to which entity is control transferred?
• How many inches of clearance should be left around the brake wheel?
• Which entity coordinates reception at the APOD alongside the A/DACG?
• Which organization controls the Loading Ramp Area in the APOE?
• What does POD stand for?
• Which statement describes Red TAT?
• Which of the following is NOT a RSOI phase?
• What does PIC stand for in the context of movement coordination?
• Which external stakeholders are coordinated with Step 8?
• Which of the following is a routing principle that prevents congestion by dividing road space or time blocks?
• A fixed-port facility is typically associated with which description?
• Which statement best describes the MCT's authority over Air Force assets, host-nation rail, and Army watercraft?
• Which document describes what we are taking when we deploy?
• How are chain-like vehicles placed during a rail operation?
• NTAT examples include which item?
• Which type of route control measure closes that route to traffic?
• BMCT stands for which of the following?
• Which category is identified in Step 4 of the movement plan?
• Which step involves maintaining the Movement Plan?
• Which step involves movement mode selection?
• Which statement describes a function of the movement program related to commercial movements?
• UDL data can be used to produce which output?
• What is the Location method of route scheduling?
• What is the primary focus of Step 4 in the movement program?
• How many people are in the BMCT?
• If no mobility force is available, what action does the A/DACG take?
• How many phases are there in deployment?
• Which item is part of vehicle preparation requirements?
• What is Step 1 of the movement plan?
• Which organization normally exercises area control by utilizing the MCB to supervise specific areas and ensure compliance with the route synchronization plan?
• Flatcars may be carried on which type of carrier?
• How many DD 1750s are needed when shipping military assets?
• AHA stands for which term in deployment planning?
• The MCT is the first point of contact for which groups requiring Army common user transportation?
• Common shortfall COAs include which option?
• On a supervised route, what determines which traffic requires a movement credit?
• Can Commanders gather intelligence from the area where the MCT operates?
• What is required when naming MSRs?
• Planned movement is identified in advance.
• Rail requirements are found in which annex?
• The Mobilization Movement Plan moves RC units from Home Station to a designated Mobilization site or MFGI.
• Which plan moves Active Component and Reserve Component units from the mobilization site or installation to the Port of Embarkation (POE)?
• Who is responsible for organizational control?
• Which document encompasses everything we have on our property book and in the system?
• In routing, how is high priority traffic typically assigned?
• Which plan moves Reserve Component units from Home Station to a designated Mobilization site or Mobilization Force Generation Installation (MFGI)?
• Which element is used to supervise specific areas and ensure compliance with the route synchronization plan?
• Which step is specifically focused on producing the formal Unit Movement Plan?
• What are the two types of loading ramps?
• Flatcars are ideal for transporting which type of cargo?
• What does MFGI stand for in movement planning?
• Organization Equipment List includes which of the following?
• ITV provides which primary purpose?
• What is a bare beach facility?
• The Unit Deployment List describes what?
• The Movement Control Team (MCT) Executes Movement Control Missions.
• How many soldiers are in a Movement Control Team (MCT)?
• What is Phase II of deployment?
• What describes the Organization Equipment List?
• When identifying the Road Network / Recommend MSRs, which of the following is true?
• What is the Call Forward Area in the APOE?
• What is Step 7 of the movement plan?
• Which description best matches a dispatch route?
• NTAT stands for Not To Accompany Troops.
• What does PSA stand for in port operations?
• What does unity of command mean in RSOI planning?
• Which units are moved under the Mobilization Movement Plan?
• What does TMR stand for?
• What is the initial step in introducing combat power into a theater?
• Why do we not tell them where are sensitive items are?
• What form number is used for the material shipping lane?
• Which items are included on a Material Shipping Label?
• For new series vehicles, what should you do to the windows?
• What does staging in RSOI planning do?
• What does the line number identify in Step 9?
• How many inches do you need to overlap the rail car deck?
• What are the two basic movements?
• How much time do you have to unload vehicles?
• Which routing principle is focused on assigning movement priorities to prevent bottlenecks?
• What is a deploying unit responsibility at the Marshalling area?
• Step 2 uses forecasts based on a 14-day planning cycle. Which statement is accurate?
• Is the BMCT a subordinate unit of the MCT?
• Who is responsible for receiving and staging discharge equipment at the port staging area?
• Which statement best describes Yellow TAT?
• Which plan moves RC units from Home Station to a designated Mobilization site or MFGI?
• Which statement best describes a fixed port facility?
• Which of the following is an example of a critical point?
• How many inches of space should you leave between vehicles?
• Which statement describes ALD?
• Reception at the APOD is coordinated by which entities?
• Which action is a function of the movement program related to shipments?
• What is the Mobilization Movement Plan designed to do?
• What is the Deployment Movement Plan designed to do?
• Which area is NOT one of APOE's four functional areas?
• What are the four parts of RSOI planning?
• What does ITO stand for?
• Which deployment phase covers Joint Reception Staging and Onward Movement and Integration?
• Which statement best describes the relationship of the deploying unit and installation regarding major rail activities?
• What is the route synchronization plan?
• Where should warning placards be placed on hazardous cargo loads during rail movement?
• RFID stands for which term?
• Why do we establish checkpoints?
• Which routing principle emphasizes using as many routes as possible?
• Immediate movement is characterized by
• How should new series vehicles be protected during transport?
• Which of the following is NOT a water terminal location type?
• What is the purpose of the CDDP?
• Which form is used to indicate to the loadmaster that the inspection is complete?
• There is one MCT assigned to APOE/D (Aerial Port of Embarkation/Debarkation) or SPOE/D distribution hub?
• Checkpoints are established at locations including
• Railheads are considered what?
• Where do you gather information for the Synchronization Route plan?
• What is a CSC?
• Tie down angles are at a ...?
• What are the two types of movement?
• Why do we need Highway regulation (Route Synchronization) plans?
• Why do we not tell them where sensitive items are?
• What is the most important and common railcar?
• Which of the following is NOT a Movement Control Mission?
• In the Mobilization Movement Plan, RC units move from where to a Mobilization site?
• Final inspection is performed after which action?
• Which is a vehicle preparation requirement for rail movement?
• Who has authority to issue Transportation Movement Releases?
• Through which channel should SDDC assistance be requested?
• All wheeled vehicles use what for a bridge gap?
• Which step is responsible for determining how personnel and equipment will be moved to the POEs?
• What is ATP 3-35?
• What is the AHA in the APOE?
• Which are the four Areas of the APOE?
• What is an APOD?
• What is the purpose of the MSR Checkpoint list in Step 6?
• What is Phase IV of deployment?
• What is Phase III of deployment?
• In RSOI planning, reception includes which functional area?
• What does MSL stand for?
• What does allocating involve in movement control?
• In-transit visibility (ITV) primarily provides the location of which assets?
• Which element is included in Step 3 to determine capabilities?
• Which is a characteristic of an unimproved port facility?
• To which unit are Movement Control Teams normally assigned?
• Identify Road Network / Recommend MSRs emphasizes that MSRs must be capable of supporting what?
• NTAT shipments are normally shipped by which means?
• RLD stands for?
• MSR stands for
• Deployment Movement Plan moves units from Mob site or Installation to which location?
• Which are the four components listed as the principles of RSOI?
• What is balance?
• Who specifies the RDD?
• Which of the following is NOT a movement control function?
• Which step of the movement program involves assessing the distribution pattern?
• Ammunition and fuel should not be carried as what during rail movement?
• Which of the following is a component of organizational convoy control?
• Coordinate logistical support for railhead operations includes which items?
• What is route scheduling?
• Which item is a responsibility of ARTRANS?
• How many steps are there to making a movement plan and deployment checklist?
• By the RDD, what must have occurred at the Port of Debarkation?
• Which routes with a scheduled move are likely to require a movement credit?
• What is required for bands used on rail movement?
• Which activity is described as part of the planning function in movement control?
• Which statement best defines unit integrity?
• Which step involves preparing the Unit Movement Plan?
• Who normally approves the recommended MSRs?
• Within the movement program tables, which field indicates the priority of the shipment?
• Planning involves considering both known and unknown factors.
• How many DD 1750s are needed when shipping commercial assets?
• What is synchronization in deployment operations?
• What pallet type is built by the deploying unit?
• Which statement describes external coordination in Step 8?
• What does HS stand for in the mobilization context?
• Who is the final approving authority for accepting rail loads?
• Which is listed as a critical point example?
• How many MCTs are allocated per committed Sustainment Brigade in Theater?
• In routing, what does 'Route balance' mean?
• What term describes an airfield designated to serve as an authorized port of entrance into a country?
• What is the CDDP used for in deployment readiness assessment?
• What does Balance refer to in this context?
• In the Movement Request Process, which step occurs after Mode selection?
• Which APOE area is designated for directing units forward to the main staging?
• RDD stands for in deployment planning?
• What is the purpose of the movement program?
• MSL stands for Military Shipment Labels.
• What does the movement program do?
• Which annex contains rail requirements?
• What is the Organization Equipment List?
• Which statement about AAR loading rules is accurate?
• Step 1 requires constant evaluation as the theater develops. Which item is explicitly mentioned?
• True or False: Tracked vehicles do not always need to use spanners.
• RLD is the date when unit must be prepared to depart origin (installation for AC; Mobilization Station for RC).